No. If you have title, it's presumed that the land has been lawfully transferred. If someone/.gov wants to claim otherwise, they need to prove that. The entire mortgage market is predicated on that. Can someone cite an instance where someone who "inherited property had to prove their parents acquired it legally because their funds were frozen after a sale" because I'd be very interested in seeing that. I'd be a LOT more willing to believe that a sale fell through because the BUYERS couldn't verify the parent's title, but that's not what's described here.
It's not the title which is the issue. You transferred the title and received the money and then the bank took the money. The buyer still has the title and doesn't care about you anymore, and you have no claim to get it back because they actually paid you. But then the bank stole the money they paid you because you couldn't prove how you got the title to begin with.
Do buyers here not do a title exam?