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The sources I can find say there is only a violation when the person trading is an insider or is purposefully tipped off by an insider.

http://www.sandstormgold.com/_resources/policies/SSL_Stock_T...

https://www.sec.gov/answers/insider.htm

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Insider_trading#Definition_of_...

The most direct version is here:

> In 1983, Switzer was sued by the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) for an alleged civil violation of the laws prohibiting "insider trading" of securities. He defended himself as having innocently overheard the information while lounging on the bleacher behind some corporate insiders—at a stadium where Switzer was watching his elder son compete in a track meet. The case was tried in Oklahoma City United States District Court (before a special U.S. District Judge appointed from Kansas). The case was dismissed at the conclusion of the Government's case for its failure to demonstrate that there had been any purposeful disclosure to Switzer.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Barry_Switzer#After_coaching

https://www.sec.gov/news/speech/1986/062086grundfest.pdf#pag...

Do you have a source that says otherwise?

The situation is even more clear for Twitter. If I'm a marine biologist making the world's most detailed measurements of the ocean, I can clearly use this info to buy or sell stock in a fishing company, even if I don't release that info publicly. Likewise, I can sell that info to someone else who makes the trades.



After reviewing the info you provided, I beleive you are mainly right. The only exception i can think of would be a situation where trump possesed inside information due to his position, then shared it via twitter early. That would be a violation, but it gets complex, and im having trouble formulating the exact line.


Thanks for your response!




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